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But this raises the perennial problem of "fixed" meaning in legal texts. Consider Scalia's jaw-dropping statement that Brown v. Board of Education was an easy case. Originalist principles, Scalia argued, would lead one to conclude that segregated schools violated the "equal protection clause" of the Fourteenth Amendment. But his application of original meaning jurisprudence does not lead to this conclusion. Given that some schools were segregated in northern states at the time of the Fourteenth Amendment's adoption and that courts had consistently upheld race-based laws and reconciled them with "equal protection" requirements, any credible application of originalism would allow in 1954 for the continued segregation of educational facilities. Scalia warded this off by suggesting that the text was clear--equal protection of the laws means that you have to treat everyone equally. But formal legal equality was part of the segregationist regime in the United States, and formalist legal principles masked the inequality that is so apparent to us today.
I should note quickly that I am not commenting here upon those journalists who misquoted Scalia as suggesting that segregation was constitutional under the provisions of the Fourteenth Amendment (hat tip to Jack Balkin and Balkinization, linked above). But I think it ironic that misquoting Scalia actually gets closer to the true application of Scalia's jurisprudence. After all, Scalia is to be applauded for demonstrating the limits of his own jurisprudence. Certain laws, he says, may be appalling. Or just stupid. But that does not necessarily mean that they are unconstitutional. I agree. But, I fear, application of this judicial philosophy would have upheld school segregation in 1954. And Scalia ought really to come to terms with it.
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